I have been getting some conflicting info on this while digging through the night. To make a long story short, here is my case:
My mother who is having health issues with her older age has been begging me for a while to move back in with her. So I sold my house a couple years ago and have been living in with my mother all of 2022.
While I do pay our necessities like food and many other things to help her out, I technically do NOT pay rent, and do NOT pay the property-taxes. She is still the registered owner of the house.
Do I skip filling out the Trillium Benefit stuff for my own taxes? Or is there still a benefit at $0 rent, even though I am not the home-owner and do not pay the property tax?
It is very confusing when I read the different government rulings on this. And I don’t want to be in violation of double-dipping if this is not how it is to be determined.